Unveiling Christianity

“And they say,”None shall enter paradise unless he be a Jew or a Christian.” These are their vain desires. Say:”Produce your proof if you are truthful.” (Surah Al-Baqarah, verse 111)

Why is Jesus God?

Posted by Ibn Anwar on April 6, 2008

Some common arguments used by Trinitarians in defence of Jesus’ “divinity”

by Ibn Anwar

The following are some arguments proposed by Trinitarians in their attempts at proving Jesus’ divinity and association with God and responses to them.

1. Jesus is God because he did not have a father. He was born of a virgin birth, a very unique characteristic found in Jesus. Who was his father? His father’s God.

Response

If Jesus is God because he did not have a father and was born of a virgin birth, then Adam should be worshipped as a greater God. This is because Adam had neither father or mother. Jesus at least had a mother. So who’s greater? Just because Jesus is fatherless does not he’s divine. The Qur’an answers explicitly :

“The similitude of Jesus before Allah is as that of Adam; He created him from dust, then said to him: “Be”. And he was.” (Qur’an 3:59)

God is Almighty. All he needs to do is will something into being and the thing comes into being. If God had absolutely no difficulty in creating Adam with parents, why would he suffer difficulty in creating a Jesus without a father?

In rebuttal, the educate Christian will retort,”the difference is that Adam was “CREATED” whilst Jesus was not. The key word is created. Jesus was begotten of God”

For the sake of argument, we concur and move on. Fine, if that is the case i.e. Jesus is God because he was begotten and not created i.e. he always was then there is yet another person more worthy of worship than Jesus. On the basis of the first argument that Jesus is God because he was fatherless and the second argument that Jesus was begotten without beginning this person which I’m about to present is far greater.

The person is no other than Melchizedek, the High Priest of Salem. He is described as “Without father or mother, without geneology, without beginning of days or end of days…” (Hebrews 7:3). So why won’t the Christians worship Melchizedek? Do they? No, they don’t. So, how many Gods are there really? Ask the Christian…do not however expect a reasonable comprehensible answer. For they are notorious for being incomprehensible.

2. Jesus is God because he gave life to the dead.

Response

First of all, Jesus had the ability to give life to the dead because God permitted it. Just like Moses who parted the Nile river, turned his stick into a snake etc. Jesus falls into the same category. Acts 2:22 explains,”Listen to this, Jesus of Nazareth was a MAN, approved of God, who did many mighty miracles which God did through him in the midst of you, which you also know..” The power came from God and Jesus was merely an instrument which He used to show His Greatness.

Second of all, if Jesus is God because “he gave life to the dead” then once again there is ANOTHER character who’s greater than Jesus on that basis.

“Then Elisha died and was buried. Groups of Moabite raiders used to invade the land each spring. Once when some Israelites were burying a man, they spied a band of these raiders. So they hastily threw the body they were burying into the tomb of Elisha. But as soon as the body touched Elisha’s bones, the dead man revived and jumped to his feet!”(2 Kings 13, verses 20-21)

Jesus was alive when he brought Lazarus back to life. The above is an instance of a prophet who gave life to the dead even after he had already died himself. His BONES gave life to the dead. Now, who’s greater? are the Christians willing to worship Elisha now? We see now that the attribute of “giving life” to the dead is not an exclusive attribute of Jesus. So what’s so great about what Jesus did if someone else also did it? What is more that someone else performed it in a more extraordinary feat!

3. Jesus is God because he forgave sins which is God’s exclusive prerogative.

Response

Nowehere in the Bible does it say that Jesus had the sole ability to forgive sins. What are to be found are instances where Jesus says “you are forgiven”. This is no solid proof of his alleged ability to remove sins. One can interpret such instances as Jesus’ affirmation from God that the person’s sins are forgiven and it is not that he himself forgave the sinner’s sins. If there are instances of Jesus apparently forgiving sins by saying for instance,”I forgive you” then the disciples as well as all Christians who practice and recite the ‘Lord’s prayer” are Gods.

Our Father in heaven,
hallowed be your name,
your kingdom come,
your will be done,
on earth as in heaven.
Give us today our daily bread.
Forgive us our sins
as we forgive those who sin against us.
Save us from the time of trial
and deliver us from evil.
[For the kingdom, the power, and the glory are yours
now and for ever. Amen.]

(Matthew 6:9-13, Luke 11:2-4)

4. Jesus is God because he said “I and my Father are one”

Response

The above is a quotation from John 10:30. If taken out of context it certainly seem as if Jesus is equating himself with God. However, when taken in context a different picture is seen. The context begins from verse 23. Let’s consider the context.

John 10(KJV)

23 And Jesus walked in the temple in Solomon’s porch.

24 Then came the Jews round about him, and said unto him, How long dost thou make us to doubt? If thou be the Christ, tell us plainly.

25 Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believed not: the works that I do in my Father’s name, they bear witness of me.

26 But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.

27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:

28 and I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.

29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father’s hand.

30 I and my Father are one.

The key verses which explain verse 30 are 28 and 29. First and foremost, if John 10:30 means Jesus and the Father are equal then the verse that precedes it makes no sense when it says “the Father is GREATER THAN ALL” which includes Jesus himself! Secondly, this oneness is actually the oneness of purpose which refers to “neither shall any man pluck them(the followers of Jesus) out of my hand and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father’s hand” in this they are one. That is to say, that when one has accepted faith Jesus as God’s messenger along with Him who sent Jesus will see to it that the person remains in faith and that no one will seduce them into abandoning the truth. In this they are one! If this explanation is not sufficient then we propose a critical reading of John 17 :

“The glory which You have given Me I have given to them, that they may be one, just as We are one; I in them and You in Me, that they may be perfected in unity, so that the world may know that You sent Me, and loved them, even as You have loved Me.” (John 17:22-23)

So how many Gods are there now? 15?

5. Jesus is God because he said “I AM” which is God’s name.

Response

What the Christians try to do is corroborate the instance where Jesus said “Before Abraham was I am” with a verse is Exodus 3 where God allegedly said “I am what I am”. They say that this phrase “I am” is divine and Godly. So when Jesus applied it to himself, he was claiming divinity. This is easily refuted by the fact that the Greek as found in the Septuagint(the Greek text for the OT referred to Jews in the time of Jesus) uses “HO ON” for I Am whilst the one found in John 8:58 in the Kone Greek uses “Ego Eimi”. If the writer of John was trying to prove Jesus’ divinity assuming that “I AM” is God’s name then he should have retained the same wording as referred to the Jews in the time of Jesus. Further more, if “I am” denotes divinity, then the beggar in John 9:9,”Some said, It is he: others said, No, but he is like him. He said, I am he” should also be considered divine since he used the same “EGO EIMI” for himself.

6. Jesus is God because he said “I am the way, the truth and the life no one comes to the Father but by me”.

Response

The following article belongs to the Muslim-SA@acsu.buffalo.edu Islamic Student Organization.

Some people read:

“I am the way, …no one comes to the Father, but through me.”

When reading this verse, for some reason some people see in it a confirmation of the Trinity. Although I can not see how they can read either an explicit or even an implicit reference to the Trinity in this verse, still, due to it’s popularity it deserves to be studied

There appear to be a sizable number of Christians who when reading this verse interpret it to state that Jesus is God and that no one shall enter into heaven except if they worship Jesus. However, since it is brought up so often in discussions of the Trinity it appears to be appropriate to discuss it here.

The popular perception that this verse claims that Jesus requires our worship in order for us to receive salvation is not the intended meaning of this verse. However, in order for us to recognize this fact it is necessary to study it’s context.

If we were to back up a little and read from the beginning of this chapter, we would find that just before Jesus spoke these words, he said;

“In my Father’s house are many mansions (dwelling places); if it were not so, I would have told you; for I go to prepare a mansion (a dwelling place) for you.”

John 14:2

The above statement is quite clear. It is in exact conformance to the teachings of the Qur’an. In the Qur’an we are told how God sent messengers to all tribes and nations. We are told that the basic message which was given to each of these tribes was the same: “Worship God alone and worship none else.” Some of the secondary details of this worship might differ from one tribe or nation to the next according to God’s infinite wisdom and his knowledge of those people. It was made very clear to each prophet that he was not to preach to anyone but his own people. It was further made clear to this messenger’s people that if they were to obey him that they would receive the reward of God. God would not hold them accountable for what any other tribe or nation did or did not do. This would continue until God’s last messenger, Muhammad (pbuh) would be sent to all mankind as the seal of the prophets.

This is exactly what Jesus is saying here. He said that in God’s mansion there are “many” rooms. Jesus was sent to guide to only one of them. The countless other rooms were reserved for other tribes and nations if they would obey their messengers. However, Jesus was telling his followers that they need not worry themselves about the other rooms. Anyone from among his people who wished to enter into the room which was reserved for them could only do so if they followed Jesus and obeyed his command. So Jesus confirmed that he was going to prepare “a” mansion and not “all” the mansions in “my Father’s house”.

Further, the verse clearly states that Jesus was the “WAY” to a mansion. He did not say that he is the “DESTINATION” which would be the case if he were God. What else would we expect a prophet of God to say except “I am the ‘way’ to God’s mercy”? That is his job. That is what a prophet does. It is why God chose him in the first place; in order to guide to the mercy of God. This is indeed confirmed in John 10:9 where Jesus tells us that he is “the door” to “the pasture.” In other words, he is the “prophet” who guides his people to “heaven” (see also Jn. 12:44). Once again, this is the message of Islam.

Finally, remember

“Not every one that says to me(Jesus); ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven; but he who does the will of my Father, who is in heaven.”

Matthew.7:21

7. Jesus is God because he is sinless.

Response

According to the Bible, Jesus was not the only sinless being to have existed. The following verses are quite telling:

“In the time of Herode king of jewry, there was a certain priest named Zacharias, of the course of Abie. And his wife was of the daughters of Aaron: And her name was Elizabeth. They were upright in the eyes of God, keeping all the rules and orders of God, and doing no wrong.”

So if being sinless is a basis for Jesus’ divinity, then both Zacharias and Elizabeth are also Gods.

8. Jesus is God because he is the Messiah.

Response

First and foremost, let us have a look at this term Christ. Ordinary Christians in my experience would immediately define Christ as “saviour” the moment the question,”What is Christ?” pops up. This can’t be farther from the truth Christ simply comes from the Greek Χριστός , transliterated as Christos which have been shortened to Christ. It is simply Greek for the Hebrew מָשִׁיחַ , transliterated as Mashiyach(or simply Messiah). The meaning of which is ANNOINTED or chosen one. Muslims ourselves do not hesitate to call Jesus as the Christ, the Messiah or Masih in Arabic since the Qur’an declares :

“…Christ Jesus the son of Mary was (no more than) an apostle of God…” (Surah Nisa’, 171)

“The Christ, son of Mary, was no more than a messenger, before whom many of the messengers have passed away..” (Surah Al-Mai’dah, 75)

In the Qur’an the term Masih is unique and is used only for Jesus and no one else, but the opposite is true for the Bible. However, many Christian think that this term Christ in the Bible is unique and is only to be found attached and associated with Jesus. They will then go on to say that this indicates the supreme or even divine position of Jesus. This is probably due to the fact that the title Christ(which is Greek) is NEVER TRANSLATED and RETAINED only in the New Testament, whenever it is applied to Jesus and translated into English as ANNOINTED whenever it happens on other Biblical characters. What’s up with that??? Well, this is one of many “games” Bible translators play with in order to subtlely programme and fool the general audience. The truth of the matter is the term or title Christ is quite a common Biblical expression found throughout the Old Testament. The following are but a few examples where the same word used for Jesus was used for other Biblical personalities:

“Great deliverance giveth he to his king; and sheweth mercy to his annointed, to David, and to his seed for evermore.” (KJV, Psalms 18:50)

In the Septuagint(oldest Greek manuscript of the Old Testament) the Greek reads “to xristo autou“(his Christ[rendered annointed in the above translation])

In the Vulgate it reads “christo suo“(his Christ)

To the PAGAN King Cyrus :

“Thus saith the Lord to his annointed, to Cyrus,…” (KJV, Isaiah 45:1)

In the Vulgate it reads “christo meo“(my Christ)

Biblically speaking, if God found it fitting to call a PAGAN, His christ, what’s so special about the title when it is applied to Jesus?

Other instances can be found in Leviticus 4:3, 1 Samuel 24:6 and Lamentations 4:20.

9. Jesus is God because he is Immanuel as prophesied by Isaiah 7:14.

Response

The problem with this argument is that Jesus is never claimed as Immanuel throughout the whole Bible. Let us see what the prophecy actually says:

“Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign: behold, the virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel(God with us).” (Isaiah 7:14)

The above translation is actually quite deceptive since it has mistranslated the Hebrew word alma as virgin.

The following is the Hebrew text for Isaiah 7:14 along with its transliteration:

לכן יתן אדני הוא לכם אות הנה העלמה הרה וילדת בן וקראת שמו עמנו אל׃

“la khen yiten adonai hu lakhem ot hine ha alma hara veyoledet ben vekarat shemo immanuel”

The word “alma” in the verse actually should be translated as “young woman” instead of virgin. Due to the bias of Christians towards Jesus, they have preferred to translate the word as virgin instead of young lady. The Hebrew Bible Society translates the verse thus :

“Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign: behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel(God with us).” (Isaiah 7:14)

http://www.mechon-mamre.org/e/et/et1007.htm

Secondly, the prophecy dictates that the son will be called by his mother IMMANUEL, yet Matthew tells us :

“But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus.” (Matthew 1:25)

So, instead of Jesus being named Immanuel, he was named Jesus and what is more he was named by Joseph rather than his mother Mary thus breaking the prophesy which says he will be called Immanuel by his mother when he is born.

Thus, as we can see Jesus does not fit into the prophecy.

Finally, “This is life eternal, that they may know you(God) the ONLY TRUE GOD, and Jesus Christ whomYou have sent”(John 17:3)

The above are some of the most common arguments put forth. Christian readers are welcome to provide more or respond to the above in the comment section.

Allah knows best.

One Response to “Why is Jesus God?”

  1. Ahmed said

    Great Job!

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